9 “Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! The sexually immoral, idolaters, adulterers, passive homosexual partners, practicing homosexuals, 10 thieves, the greedy, drunkards, the verbally abusive, and swindlers will not inherit the kingdom of God. 11 Some of you once lived this way” (1 Cor. 6:9-11, NET).
In 1996, the Defense of Marriage Act (DOMA) was signed into law by President Bill Clinton. DOMA defined marriage as between a man and a woman. It barred federal recognition of same-sex marriage by restricting the definition of marriage to the union of one man and one woman. However, December 13th of this year, the 117th United States Congress passed the Respect for Marriage Act and it was signed into law by President Joe Biden, which repealed the DOMA.
There was a time when this country stood unmovable against biblical offenses such as homosexuality and abortion—even enacting laws against such practices. What we use to call an abomination and see as evil are now celebrated and recognized as a “cultural norm.” For example, before 1962, sodomy was a felony in every state, now we expect the unregenerate to embrace, promote and even applaud homosexuality and other ungodly practices. However, when professing Christians, due to passivity or ignorance, accept a homosexual lifestyle as biblically permissible- that is a travesty.
God is love, true, but “God is a just judge, And God is angry with the wicked every day.” (Ps. 7:11, NKJV).[1] God takes a dim view at those who say, “Jesus is Lord,” then dishonor Him by their practice and acceptance of egregious sins—Scripture is crystal-clear on the subject.
What is alarming is the growing community of pro-homosexual “professing” Christians. To make the Bible conform to their philosophy, lifestyle and carnal practices, they patently misinterpret passages and pretext biblical narratives. For example, explaining that Leviticus 18 and 20, which condemns the practice of homosexuality merely refers to temple prostitution. They espouse that David loved Jonathan in a homosexual way, saying Jesus never condemned homosexuality and that God loves all men unconditionally, etc. Or, asserting that in 1 Cor. 6:9 and 1 Tim. 1:10 (although most have never even read these passages), Paul only condemned prostitutes and pederasts, and not monogamous male-to-male relationships, etc. Although claiming to be in the faith, they naturally disagree with the definitive biblical prohibitions against homosexuality and are extremely tolerant of it.
The Biblical Prohibition
The Bible has much to say on the topic starting in the OT Law, example:
Lev. 18:22: “You shall not sleep with a male as one sleeps with a female; it is an abomination”
Lev. 20:13: “If there is a man who sleeps with a male as those who sleep with a woman, both of them have committed a detestable act; they must be put to death. . . .”
In spite of the clarity of these passages, liberal theologians and pro-homosexual advocates attempt to downplay these OT precepts by limiting the homosexual prohibition to a cultural meaning (e.g., referring to temple prostitution). However, if the prohibitions were speaking only against temple prostitution, why then are only male to males mentioned? Why would not the law include both men women? Or state plainly anything about “temple prostitution?”
Also, contextually the prohibition against homosexual acts are sandwiched between the other laws concerning sexual behavior, such as prohibiting sex with an uncle, aunt, animals, etc. Clearly, the prohibition is not confined to such a limitation as temple prostitution. Now, the law does indeed speak explicitly against temple prostitution, but not in Leviticus, rather we find that context in Deut. 23:17-18. The fact is, the passages in Leviticus are not vague commandments against prostitution, but specific injunctions against homosexuality in all forms—as severely as its condemnation in the NT as well.
But what of David and Jonathan in 2 Sam 1:26?
“I am distressed for you, my brother Jonathan; very pleasant have you been to me; your love to me was extraordinary, surpassing the love of women” (ESV).
First, note verse 23, where the same term (as a verb) is used to describe the love between a Saul and Jonathan. In verse 26, the phrase “surpassing the love” is from the Hebrew noun, ahabah. Both this noun and the verb (aheb) are similar to the English word, “love”—in which context determines the meaning. As in verse 23, frequently, the verb is used to denote the love of the father for his son. For example, Abraham’s love for Isaac (Gen. 22:2; also see Gen. 37:3,4; 44:20; Prov. 13:24 et al.). Even more, the term could also denote the love with which women love their husband and children.
Second, the flawed pro-homosexual interpretation neglects to take into account the Middle Eastern concept of a man’s relationship to his wife. In the Middle East, a man’s primary kinship is with other men, not with his wife. For example, during dinner time, the wife and daughters would set up the table, however, when it was time to eat, the man and his sons, and, if any friends were invited, they would all eat together while the women would leave and eat separately or after the men. This is still a common practice in the 21th century.
Third, it is an established fact that throughout the ancient world, the friendship between a man and a man was esteemed higher than the relationship between a man and a wife. So, it is completely natural within this culture that David’s “love” for his closest and best friend Jonathan, “surpassed that of women.”
New Testament
The NT provides the same categorical condemnation against the sin of homosexuality as in the OT—primarily, in Rom. 1:18-32; 1 Cor. 6:9; and 1 Tim. 1:10. Before we examine these texts, an argument that liberals and skeptics like to propose should first be mentioned. They point out that Jesus himself nowhere condemned homosexuality, so it must be permitted. It is ridiculous to assume that Jesus covered every single doctrine and repeated every single commandment contained in the OT in a period of three years. In point of fact, many doctrines, He left up to His apostles to teach; hence, many things that Jesus said and did are not recorded in the NT, “if they were written in detail, I expect that even the world itself would not contain the books that would be written” (John 21:25).
But, Jesus did indeed condemn homosexuality. In Matt. 19:3-6, Jesus teaches that “from the beginning,” God defined marriage as the union between male and female, as does Paul in Eph. 5 citing the same Adam and Eve reference that Jesus did.
ROMANS 1:18-32
Paul’s entire thesis here is dealing with the constant suppressing of truth by pagans and its consequences (viz. God’s wrath “continuing” to be on them; cf. v. 18). Paul uses an argument from nature (creation) to show that they are without excuse—for “For they exchanged the truth of God for falsehood, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator. . . .” (v. 25, NET).
Because of this, “God gave them over to dishonorable passions. For their women exchanged the natural sexual relations for unnatural ones” (v. 26, ibid.). The phrase, “the natural sexual relations” is a literal translation of the Greek phrase tēn phusikēn chrēsin—phusikēn (“nature”) and chrēsin (“use,” i.e., sexual use/function). This, Paul says, is para phusin (“against nature, unnatural”).[2]
Homosexual men likewise, says Paul, “abandoned” tēn phusikēn chrēsin [‘the natural sexual function’] with women and were inflamed in their passions for one another. Men committed shameless acts with men and received in themselves the due penalty for their error” (NET). Alluding to Lev. 18 and 20, Paul sees homosexuality as not only unnatural, (viz., “contrary to nature,” ESV), but as having the same consequence as stated in the OT: “those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also approve of those who practice them” (Rom. 1:32). “Professing” Christians who practice and/or approve of homosexual relationships cannot remove the contextual significances of Rom. 1:18-32.
1 CORINTHIANS 6:9-10:
9 “Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! The sexually immoral, idolaters, adulterers, passive homosexual partners [malakoi] practicing homosexuals [arsenokoitai], 10 thieves, the greedy, drunkards, the verbally abusive, and swindlers will not inherit the kingdom of God” (NET; note v. 11: “Some of you once lived this way”).
1 TIMOTHY 1:9-10:
9 “for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who strike their fathers and mothers, for murderers, 10 the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality [arsenokoitais], enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine.” (ESV).
The two key Greek terms in both 1 Cor. 6:9 and 1 Tim.1:10 are malakos (only 1 Cor. 6:9, “passive homosexual partners, effeminate”) and arsenokoitēs (“homosexual” or more literally, “sodomite” [NKJV] or “men who have sex with men” [NIV]). And both terms are plural (malakoi, arsenokoitais/ arsenokoitai). Malakos (“soft”) appears in four places in the NT. In every place, the term refers to “soft garment/clothing” (cf. Matt. 11:8) except in 1 Cor. 6:9, where contextually it refers to the “soft” passive (effeminate) partner in a homosexual relationship.
Whereas arsenokoitēs is a Greek term that Paul actually made up (only appearing in these two passages). Apparently, the source of Paul’s usage of his compound term, arsenokoitēs (from arsēn, “a male” and koitē, “a mat/bed” with the idea of intercourse) comes from the LXX (i.e., Greek trans. the OT) of Lev. 18:22 (“with a male [from arsēn] you shall not lie in bed/intercourse [from koitē] [as with] of a woman”). Same terms and semantic in Lev. 20:13.
This shows unequivocally the apostle’s intended meaning of 1 Cor. 6:9 and 1 Tim. 1:10- “both of them have committed a detestable act [toebah]; they shall surely be put to death” (Lev. 20:13). As with a number of other languages, Greek distinguishes the “active dominate” (arsenokoitēs) and the “passive effeminate” (malakos) roles in a homosexual relationship. For example, BDAG (Walter Bauer’s, Greek Lexicon of the NT, 3rd ed., rev. and ed. Frederick W. Danker), defines Paul’s term as “one who assumes the dominant role in same-sex activity.”
To pretext and thus circumvent the obvious meaning in these passages, liberals and pro-homosexual “professing” Christians make eisegetical leaps – arguing that arsenokoitēs narrowly refers to “promiscuous homosexuality,” pederasty, and/or prostitution, etc., and not a monogamous loving relationship between two of the same sex. They also remove malakos from its contextual import in 1 Cor. 6:9-10 and 1 Tim. 1:9-10. Naturally, they do so to justify their own lifestyle and/or personal philosophy—making the Bible say what they want it to say.
Although arsenokoitēs can refer to prostitution, abuse, pederasty, etc., the lexical-semantic of arsenokoitēs (again, Paul’s unique term) in 1 Cor. 6:9 and in 1 Tim. 1:10, condemns homosexuality in all forms, as does Rom. 1:18-32; Lev. 18:22; and 20:13.
In closing, homosexuality, in our day is just as depraved and abominable to the Lord as it was when the “Old and New Testament” were being written. It is without a doubt our “calling “to speak out as believers against this growing, fertile and depraved LGBT Mob Cult of our century and send them packing.
May God bless our courage in the face of this egregious sin against Him!
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Notes
[1] All biblical citations are taken from the NASB (2020) unless otherwise indicated.
[2] From para with the accusative (“against”) and phusin (from phusis, “inherent nature,” cf. Gal. 4:8; Eph. 2:3).