Mark 32:32: “But of that day or hour no knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone”
(Note Matt. 24:36 (NET): “But as for that day and hour no one knows it – not even the angels in heaven– except the Father alone” (NET). Because of the textual variant (which has some merit, e.g., א1 L W f1 33 ÏL W f1 33 Ï1 L W f1 33 Ï), which omits “οὐδὲ ὁ υἱός” (“nor the Son”), some translations follow, as the above.
Unitarians, esp. Muslims and JWs use this passage (among others) to show Jesus is not God.
First, throughout the OT and NT, Christ is presented as ontologically truly God and truly man (Exod. 3:6, 14; Isa. 9:6; Dan. 7:13-14; Mark 14:61-64; John 1:1, 18; 5:17-18; 8:58; 20:28; Rom. 9:5; 10:9-13; Phil. 2:6-11; Titus 2:13; Heb. 1:6, 10-12; 2 Pet 1:1; Rev. 1:7-8; 22:13). His claim to be God were unambiguous (Mark. 14:61-64; John 5:17-18; 8:24, 58 et al.; 10:30; Rev. 1:7-8; 22:13; etc.).
So was Jesus ignorant of His Return?
Two main views
VIEW 1- Incarnation- Consistent with the Son’s Emptying and Humiliation – – But what about the Holy Spirit?
VIEW 2. Revolves around the Hebrew Hiphil Stem: Verbs that denote Action- taken in a Causative or Declarative sense.- – This view was used some early church fathers- – and it erases any notion of Ignorance.
View 1, is possible, but problematic. That “Christ chose not to know certain things” is an acceptable answer that is consistent with the humiliation of the Lord in His incarnation. However, the last phrase in the parallel passage (Matt. 24:36) is unambiguous: “… except the Father alone.” If the Father alone, then, what of non-incarnate Holy Spirit”
View 2 is a more probable explanation of His so-called ignorance that is and was used by some early church fathers. It has to do with the verb oiden (“knows”). Instead of ignorance (Jesus not “knowing”), we see the verb oiden (perfect form of eidō) in a “preeminent sense” in that, the verb oiden takes the force of the Hebrew stem hiphil. Verbs with the hiphil has a causative or declarative sense. Thus as here: “I make known, cause, promulgate, declare.”
In 1 Cor. 2:2, the same verb is used in this sense, where Paul states: “I determined ‘to know’ (eidenai from eidō) nothing among you but Jesus Christ and him crucified,” that is, I cause or determined to make known, nothing among you, but Jesus Christ.
Similar phrase in Matt. 20:23— Jesus said to the Sons of Zebedee, James and John: “My cup you shall drink; but to sit on My right and on My left, this is not Mine to give, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by My Father.”- “Is not mine to give” signifies, “is not in my authority to give”—
So in light of the verb oiden (“to know”) taking the force of the Hebrew stem hiphil (as in 1 Cor. 2:2), the literal sense may be: “But of that day and that hour none can cause or declare to you to KNOW (that is, none has authority) to cause to make known— not the angels, neither the Son, but, preeminently, the Father alone—He will reveal or declare it.
“To them belong the patriarchs, and from them, by human descent, came the Christ, who is God over all, blessed forever! Amen” (Rom. 9:5, NET).
Anonymous says:
So if I’m understanding this correctly, your entire argument is based on speculation with no actual backing, since we don’t have access to any manuscripts of Matthew or mark in Hebrew/aramaic?
Edward Dalcour says:
Not mere speculation, rather based on how the verbs are used in both the NT Greek and OT (e.g., 1 Cor. 2:2). Also the variant reading in Matt. 24:36, which omits “nor the Son.” It is a likely view since the incarnational view is problematic- as I pointed out. Biblical interpretation on difficult passages, always starts with the clear to interpret the unclear. So with this passage, either view (incarnational or declarative verb sense) does not counter the unambiguous explicated teachings contained in the content of OT and NT: Jesus, the Son of God, is presented as ontologically coequal with God the Father, but distinct, and truly man.